Use of limitations of radiolabeled anti-CEA antibodies and their fragments for photoscanning detection of human colorectal carcinomas.

Fifty-three patients with histologically proven carcinoma were injected with highly purified [131I]-labeled goat antibodies or fragments of antibodies against carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA). Each patient was tested by external photoscanning 4, 24, 36 and 48 h after injection. In 22 patients (16 of 38 injected with intact antibodies, 5 of 13 with F(ab')2 fragments and 1 of 2 with Fab' fragments), an increased concentration of 131I radioactivity corresponding to the previously known tumor location was detected by photoscanning 36-48 h after injection. Blood pool and secreted radioactivity was determined in all patients by injecting 15 min before scanning, [99mTc]-labeled normal serum albumin and free 99mTc04-. The computerized subtraction of 99mTc from 131I radioactivity enhanced the definition of tumor localization in the 22 positive patients. However, in spite of the computerized subtraction, interpretation of the scans remained doubtful for 12 patients and was entirely negative for 19 additional patients. In order to provide a more objective evaluation for the specificity of the tumor localization of antibodies, 14 patients scheduled for tumor resection were injected simultaneously with [131I]-labeled antibodies or fragments and with [125I]-labeled normal goat IgG or fragments. After surgery, the radioactivity of the two isotopes present either in tumor or adjacent normal tissues was measured in a dual channel scintillation counter. The results showed that the antibodies or their fragments were 2-4 times more concentrated in the tumor than in the normal tissues. In addition, it was shown that the injected antibodies formed immune complexes with circulating CEA and that the amount of immune complexes detectable in serum was roughly proportional to the level of circulating CEA.

Nasal immunization of mice with human papillomavirus type 16 virus-like particles elicits neutralizing antibodies in mucosal secretions.

To specifically induce a mucosal antibody response to purified human papillomavirus type 16 (HPV16) virus-like particles (VLP), we immunized female BALB/c mice orally, intranasally, and/or parenterally and evaluated cholera toxin (CT) as a mucosal adjuvant. Anti-HPV16 VLP immunoglobulin G (IgG) and IgA titers in serum, saliva, and genital secretions were measured by enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA). Systemic immunizations alone induced HPV16 VLP-specific IgG in serum and, to a lesser extent, in genital secretions but no secretory IgA. Oral immunization, even in the presence of CT, was inefficient. However, three nasal immunizations with 5 microgram of VLP given at weekly intervals to anesthetized mice induced high (>10(4)) and long-lasting (>15 weeks) titers of anti-HPV16 VLP antibodies in all samples, including IgA and IgG in saliva and genital secretions. CT enhanced the VLP-specific antibody response 10-fold in serum and to a lesser extent in saliva and genital secretions. Nasal immunization of conscious mice compared to anesthetized mice was inefficient and correlated with the absence of uptake of a marker into the lung. However, a 1-microgram VLP systemic priming followed by two 5-microgram VLP intranasal boosts in conscious mice induced both HPV16 VLP-specific IgG and IgA in secretions, although the titers were lower than in anesthetized mice given three intranasal immunizations. Antibodies in serum, saliva, and genital secretions of immunized mice were strongly neutralizing in vitro (50% neutralization with ELISA titers of 65 to 125). The mucosal and systemic/mucosal HPV16 VLP immunization protocols that induced significant titers of neutralizing IgG and secretory IgA in mucosal secretions in mice may be relevant to genital HPV VLP-based human vaccine trials.

Food availability affects the maternal transfer of androgens and antibodies into eggs of a colonial seabird.

Mothers can improve the quality of their offspring by increasing the level of certain components in their eggs. To examine whether or not mothers increase deposition of such components in eggs as a function of food availability, we food-supplemented black-legged kittiwake females (Rissa tridactyla) before and during egg laying and compared deposition of androgens and antibodies into eggs of first and experimentally induced replacement clutches. Food-supplemented females transferred lower amounts of androgens and antibodies into eggs of induced replacement clutches than did non-food-supplemented mothers, whereas first clutches presented no differences between treatments. Our results suggest that when females are in lower condition, they transfer more androgens and antibodies into eggs to facilitate chick development despite potential long-term costs for juveniles. Females in prime condition may avoid these potential long-term costs because they can provide their chicks with more and higher quality resources.

Plasmodium falciparum merozoite surface protein 2: epitope mapping and biological activity analysis of specific antibodies

Background: Plasmodium falciparum(P. falciparum) merozoite surfaceprotein 2 (MSP-2) is one of bloodstage proteins that are associated withprotection from malaria. MSP-2 consistsof a highly polymorphic centralrepeat region flanked by a dimorphicregion that defines the two allelicfamilies, 3D7 and FC27; N- and Cterminalregions are conserved domains.Long synthetic peptides (LSP)representing the two allelic familiesof MSP-2 and constant regions arerecognized by sera from donors livingin endemic areas; and specific antibodies(Abs) are associated with protectionand active in antibody dependentcellular inhibition (ADCI) in vitro.However, the fine specificity ofAb response to the two allelic familiesof MSP-2 is unknown. Methods: Peptidesrepresenting dimorphic regionof 3D7 and FC27 families and theirC-terminal (common fragment to thetwo families) termed 3D7-D (88 aa),FC27-D (48 aa) and C (40 aa) respectivelywere synthesized. Overlapping20 mer peptides covering dimorphicand constant regions of two familieswere also synthesized for epitopemapping. Human sera were obtainedfrom donors living in malaria endemicareas. SpecificDand CregionsAbs were purified from single or poolhuman sera. Sera from mice were obtainedafter immunization with thetwo families LSP mixture in three differentadjuvants: alhydrogel (Alum),Glucopyranosyl Lipid Adjuvant-Stableoil-in-water Emulsion (GLA-SE)and Virosome. For ADCI, P. falciparum(strain 3D7) parasite wasmaintained in culture at 0.5% parasitemiaand 4% hematocrit in air tightbox at love oxygen (2%) and 37 ºC.Results: We identified several epitopesfrom the dimorphic and constantregions of both families of MSP-2, inmice and humans (adults and children).In human, most recognizedepitopes were the same in differentendemic regions for each domain ofthe two families of MSP-2. In mice,the differential recognition of epitopewas depending on the strain of mouseand interestingly on the adjuvantused. GLA-SE and alum as adjuvantswere more often associated with therecognition of multiple epitopes thanvirosomes. Epitope-specific Abs recognizednative merozoites of P.falciparum and were active in ADCIto block development of parasite.Conclusion: The delineation of a limitednumber of epitopes could be exploitedto develop MSP-2 vaccinesactive on both allelic families ofMSP-2.

The use of mannan antigen and anti-mannan antibodies in the diagnosis of invasive candidiasis: recommendations from the Third European Conference on Infections in Leukemia.

INTRODUCTION: Timely diagnosis of invasive candidiasis (IC) remains difficult as the clinical presentation is not specific and blood cultures lack sensitivity and need a long incubation time. Thus, non-culture-based methods for diagnosing IC have been developed. Mannan antigen (Mn) and anti-mannan antibodies (A-Mn) are present in patients with IC. On behalf of the Third European Conference on Infections in Leukemia, the performance of these tests was analysed and reviewed. METHODS: The literature was searched for studies using the commercially available sandwich enzyme-linked immunosorbent assays (Platelia™, Bio-Rad Laboratories, Marnes-la-Coquette, France) for detecting Mn and A-Mn in serum. The target condition of this review was IC defined according to 2008 European Organization for Research and Treatment of Cancer/Mycoses Study Group criteria. Sensitivity, specificity and diagnostic odds ratios (DOR) were calculated for Mn, A-Mn and combined Mn/A-Mn testing. RESULTS: Overall, 14 studies that comprised 453 patients and 767 controls were reviewed. The patient populations included in the studies were mainly haematological and cancer cases in seven studies and mainly intensive care unit and surgery cases in the other seven studies. All studies but one were retrospective in design. Mn sensitivity was 58% (95% confidence interval [CI], 53-62); specificity, 93% (95% CI, 91-94) and DOR, 18 (95% CI 12-28). A-Mn sensitivity was 59% (95% CI, 54-65); specificity, 83% (95% CI, 79-97) and DOR, 12 (95% CI 7-21). Combined Mn/A-Mn sensitivity was 83% (95% CI, 79-87); specificity, 86% (95% CI, 82-90) and DOR, 58 (95% CI 27-122). Significant heterogeneity of the studies was detected. The sensitivity of both Mn and A-Mn varied for different Candida species, and it was the highest for C. albicans, followed by C. glabrata and C. tropicalis. In 73% of 45 patients with candidemia, at least one of the serological tests was positive before the culture results, with mean time advantage being 6 days for Mn and 7 days for A-Mn. In 21 patients with hepatosplenic IC, 18 (86%) had Mn or A-Mn positive test results at a median of 16 days before radiological detection of liver or spleen lesions. CONCLUSIONS: Mn and A-Mn are useful for diagnosis of IC. The performance of combined Mn/A-Mn testing is superior to either Mn or A-Mn testing.

Predicting hematologic toxicity in patients undergoing radioimmunotherapy with 90Y-ibritumomab tiuxetan or 131I-tositumomab.

This study aimed at identifying clinical factors for predicting hematologic toxicity after radioimmunotherapy with (90)Y-ibritumomab tiuxetan or (131)I-tositumomab in clinical practice. Hematologic data were available from 14 non-Hodgkin lymphoma patients treated with (90)Y-ibritumomab tiuxetan and 18 who received (131)I-tositumomab. The percentage baseline at nadir and 4 wk post nadir and the time to nadir were selected as the toxicity indicators for both platelets and neutrophils. Multiple linear regression analysis was performed to identify significant predictors (P < 0.05) of each indicator. For both platelets and neutrophils, pooled and separate analyses of (90)Y-ibritumomab tiuxetan and (131)I-tositumomab data yielded the time elapsed since the last chemotherapy as the only significant predictor of the percentage baseline at nadir. The extent of bone marrow involvement was not a significant factor in this study, possibly because of the short time elapsed since the last chemotherapy of the 7 patients with bone marrow involvement. Because both treatments were designed to deliver a comparable bone marrow dose, this factor also was not significant. None of the 14 factors considered was predictive of the time to nadir. The R(2) value for the model predicting percentage baseline at nadir was 0.60 for platelets and 0.40 for neutrophils. This model predicted the platelet and neutrophil toxicity grade to within ±1 for 28 and 30 of the 32 patients, respectively. For the 7 patients predicted with grade I thrombocytopenia, 6 of whom had actual grade I-II, dosing might be increased to improve treatment efficacy. The elapsed time since the last chemotherapy can be used to predict hematologic toxicity and customize the current dosing method in radioimmunotherapy.

Efficacy and safety of certolizumab pegol induction therapy in an unselected Crohn's disease population: results of the FACTS survey.

Background: Switzerland was the first country to approve certolizumab pegol (Cimzia, CZP) for the treatment of patients with moderate to severe Crohn's disease (CD) in September 2007. This phase IV study aimed to evaluate the efficacy and safety of CZP in a Swiss multicenter cohort of practice-based patients. Methods: Baseline and Week 6 evaluation questionnaires were sent to all Swiss gastroenterologists in hospitals and private practices. Disease activity was assessed with the Harvey-Bradshaw Index (HBI) and adverse events were evaluated according to WHO guidelines. Results: Fifty patients (31 women, 19 men) were included; 56% had complicated disease (stricture or fistula) and 52% had undergone prior CD-related surgery. All patients. had prior exposure to systemic steroids, 96% to immunomodulators, 78% to infliximab, and 50% to adalimumab. A significant decrease in HBI was observed at Week 6 (versus Week 0) following induction therapy with CZP 400 mg subcutaneously at Weeks 0, 2, and 4 (12.6 +/- 4.7 Week 0 versus 6.2 +/- 4.4 Week 6, P < 0.001). Response and remission rates at Week 6 were 54% and 40%, respectively. We identified 8/11 CD patients undergoing a 50% fistula response (P = 0.021). The frequency of adverse drug reactions attributed to CZP was 6%. CZP was continued in 80% of patients beyond Week 6. Conclusions: In a population of CD patients with complicated disease behavior, CZP induced a response and remission in 54% and 40% of patients, respectively. This series provides the first evidence of the effectiveness of CZP in perianal fistulizing CD.

Neoadjuvant chemoradiotherapy with or without panitumumab in patients with wild-type KRAS, locally advanced rectal cancer (LARC): a randomized, multicenter, phase II trial SAKK 41/07.

BACKGROUND: We conducted a randomized, phase II, multicenter study to evaluate the anti-epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) mAb panitumumab (P) in combination with chemoradiotherapy (CRT) with standard-dose capecitabine as neoadjuvant treatment for wild-type KRAS locally advanced rectal cancer (LARC). PATIENTS AND METHODS: Patients with wild-type KRAS, T3-4 and/or N+ LARC were randomly assigned to receive CRT with or without P (6 mg/kg). The primary end-point was pathological near-complete or complete tumor response (pNC/CR), defined as grade 3 (pNCR) or 4 (pCR) histological regression by Dworak classification (DC). RESULTS: Forty of 68 patients were randomly assigned to P + CRT and 28 to CRT. pNC/CR was achieved in 21 patients (53%) treated with P + CRT [95% confidence interval (CI) 36%-69%] versus 9 patients (32%) treated with CRT alone (95% CI: 16%-52%). pCR was achieved in 4 (10%) and 5 (18%) patients, and pNCR in 17 (43%) and 4 (14%) patients. In immunohistochemical analysis, most DC 3 cells were not apoptotic. The most common grade ≥3 toxic effects in the P + CRT/CRT arm were diarrhea (10%/6%) and anastomotic leakage (15%/4%). CONCLUSIONS: The addition of panitumumab to neoadjuvant CRT in patients with KRAS wild-type LARC resulted in a high pNC/CR rate, mostly grade 3 DC. The results of both treatment arms exceeded prespecified thresholds. The addition of panitumumab increased toxicity.

Enforced covalent trimerisation of soluble feline CD134 (OX40)-ligand generates a functional antagonist of feline immunodeficiency virus.

The feline immunodeficiency virus (FIV) targets activated CD4-positive helper T cells preferentially, inducing an AIDS-like immunodeficiency in its natural host species, the domestic cat. The primary receptor for FIV is CD134, a member of the tumour necrosis factor receptor superfamily (TNFRSF) and all primary viral strains tested to date use CD134 for infection. To investigate the effect of the natural ligand for CD134 on FIV infection, feline CD134L was cloned and expressed in soluble forms. However, in contrast to murine or human CD134L, soluble feline CD134L (sCD134L) did not bind to CD134. Receptor-binding activity was restored by enforced covalent trimerisation following the introduction of a synthetic trimerisation domain from tenascin (TNC). Feline and human TNC-CD134Ls retained the species-specificity of the membrane-bound forms of the ligand while murine TNC-CD134L displayed promiscuous binding to feline, human or murine CD134. Feline and murine TNC-CD134Ls were antagonists of FIV infection; however, potency was both strain-specific and substrate-dependent, indicating that the modulatory effects of endogenous sCD134L, or exogenous CD134Lbased therapeutics, may vary depending on the viral strain.

Swiss consensus statement: Recommendations for optimising re-treatment with MabThera (rituximab) in rheumatoid arthritis.

Rituximab is an effective treatment of rheumatoid arthritis (RA), which has been approved for the treatment of moderate to severe disease in patients with an inadequate response to anti-TNF therapies. Rituximab differs from other available biological agents for RA by way of its unique mode of action and unrivalled long dosing interval. The efficacy of rituximab subsides progressively over time and re-therapy is generally required to maintain long term disease control. The timing of re-treatment is currently not well established and varies widely in clinical practice. The present document is a concise recommendation regarding re-treatment with rituximab, based on validated outcomes such as the DAS28 and the EULAR response criteria. The recommendation was established through consensus between practitioners familiar with rituximab therapy in RA. Optimisation of the rituximab re-treatment schedule may improve patient outcomes and balance risks and benefits for the individual patient.

Evaluation of a new serological test for the detection of anti-Coxiella and anti-Rickettsia antibodies.

Coxiella burnetii and members of the genus Rickettsia are obligate intracellular bacteria. Since cultivation of these organisms requires dedicated techniques, their diagnosis usually relies on serological or molecular biology methods. Immunofluorescence is considered the gold standard to detect antibody-reactivity towards these organisms. Here, we assessed the performance of a new automated epifluorescence immunoassay (InoDiag) to detect IgM and IgG against C. burnetii, Rickettsia typhi and Rickettsia conorii. Samples were tested with the InoDiag assay. A total of 213 sera were tested, of which 63 samples from Q fever, 20 from spotted fever rickettsiosis, 6 from murine typhus and 124 controls. InoDiag results were compared to micro-immunofluorescence. For acute Q fever, the sensitivity of phase 2 IgG was only of 30% with a cutoff of 1 arbitrary unit (AU). In patients with acute Q fever with positive IF IgM, sensitivity reached 83% with the same cutoff. Sensitivity for chronic Q fever was 100% whereas sensitivity for past Q fever was 65%. Sensitivity for spotted Mediterranean fever and murine typhus were 91% and 100%, respectively. Both assays exhibited a good specificity in control groups, ranging from 79% in sera from patients with unrelated diseases or EBV positivity to 100% in sera from healthy patients. In conclusion, the InoDiag assay exhibits an excellent performance for the diagnosis of chronic Q fever but a very low IgG sensitivity for acute Q fever likely due to low reactivity of phase 2 antigens present on the glass slide. This defect is partially compensated by the detection of IgM. Because it exhibits a good negative predictive value, the InoDiag assay is valuable to rule out a chronic Q fever. For the diagnosis of rickettsial diseases, the sensitivity of the InoDiag method is similar to conventional immunofluorescence.